AKT question relating to premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Single Best Answer

You see a 31-year-old lady with symptoms consistent with moderate premenstrual dysphoric disorder. She is struggling and hoping for some treatment.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first-line management option within primary care? Select ONE option only.

Acupuncture

AnswerDOI: 10.1177/1755738021995342i